A Correction to my Last Post

It seems an assumption I made in my last post, is not accurate. I reasoned that the decline in newspaper readership being significant through class, gender, and education was also true for the increase in internet news. As it turns out, the increase in internet news consumption does discriminate:

Since 2006, daily online news use has increased by about a third, from 18% to 25%. However, as the online news audience grows, the educational divide in online news use - evident since the internet's early days in the mid-1990s - also is increasing. Currently, 44% of college graduates say they get news online every day, compared with just 11% of those with a high school education or less.

There are certainly some conclusions we can draw from this which I touched on in my last post. But the questions I am inclined to ask are, how does this change the news that different education adn income groups are receiving? We have talked about in class how the age of the internet has changed our experience of getting news, so what does that mean for people who can't access it? Does it even matter?